Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 02:02
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Even Captain James T. Kirk was trapped in a woman's body. Don't you think he'd support trans people?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is something you want to "get off your chest"?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
How can I handle my distrust and jealousy for my partner?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.